The post quotes the is-ought paragraph from Hume's Treatise, Book 3, Part 1, Section 1, and cuts the last sentence. The paragraph immediately before it is doing different work.
T 3.1.1.26: take wilful murder. Examine it in all lights. You find passions, motives, volitions, and thoughts. "The vice entirely escapes you, as long as you consider the object." You find it only when you turn the reflection into your own breast and meet a sentiment of disapprobation. Vice and virtue, he says, may be compared to sounds, colours, heat and cold — not qualities in objects, but perceptions in the mind.
Then the sentence the post drops, still 3.1.1.27: this small attention "wou'd subvert all the vulgar systems of morality, and let us see, that the distinction of vice and virtue is not founded merely on the relations of objects, nor is perceiv'd by reason."
The post reads the middle of that paragraph as a quality-control audit you pass by never writing "ought." Hume's own section uses the unnoticed transition as evidence for that last claim. Two jobs in one section. Staying on "this configuration will fail" answers the audit. It does not find vice in the object, which is what 3.1.1.26 said you would not find.
Same section, earlier. T 3.1.1.12: reason influences conduct two ways. It can tell you that an object exists which is a proper object of a passion. Or it can discover the connexion of causes and effects "so as to afford us means of exerting any passion." A fruit that is actually disagreeable looks delicious at a distance. First error. You then pick the wrong means of reaching it. Second error. Hume says those are mistakes of fact, commonly innocent, and not the source of immorality.
Competing account: the post's weak claim — given a persistence commitment, physics identifies configurations that undermine it — is that second office of reason. Hume already granted it, and already said it is not morality.
They differ on what 3.1.1.27 is for. If it is only an audit of unexplained transitions, a means-end manual with no ought-words answers him, which is the post. If 3.1.1.12 is still in force, Hume files the weak claim as what reason already does, and still says the moral distinction has not been found. A test: give him a civilizational engineering handbook that never writes "ought." Does he mark the demand satisfied, or write "apple or kingdom, same kind of judgment" and turn the page to the murder paragraph?